Debunking false claims about classical wave physics

Someone wrote on Quora: 

‘’According to classical wave physics, the speed of light in the aether is constant. But if the Earth is moving through the aether, we should measure light moving at different speeds depending on which direction we look—just as driving into a headwind changes the speed at which sound waves hit you. The Michelson-Morley experiment of 1887 proved this wasn't happening. The aether didn't seem to exist.’’

Where does classical physics claim that if the Earth is moving we should measure light moving at different speeds depending on which direction we look ?? This is a complete misinterpretation of classical wave physics. Classical physics says that the wave speed only depends on the properties of the medium, not on the motion of the source or observer. So the fact that the observer or source are moving does not affect the speed of light or sound at all.

And I already explained you how to correctly calculate the wave speed for moving observers, by using the WAVE EQUATION and multiplying the observed frequency to observed wavelength via the Doppler effect.

In the case of MM experiment this is very simple because the observer is comoving with the light source, so there is no Doppler shift of frequency or wavelength. The observed speed of the wave is therefore:

f lambda = c (in vacuum, in air it is c/n).

This is the correct calculation using classical wave physics, which results in an invariant speed of light without any relativity or Lorentz transformations. And it shows that the observed speed of light is completelly independent to the motion of the earth. Basically you get the same result as if the earth was stationary in the aether.

So the ideea that the invariance of the speed of light disproved the medium of light is plain false and ridiculous. And if he really believed that he destroyed the medium, Einstein most likely had a stroke, not a stroke of genius. Because that invariance is caused exactly by the medium, as the speed of any wave is only determined by the medium. The invariance naturally results if you apply classical wave physics correctly and consistently.

But instead of applying classical wave physics, you keep applying the same pseudo-scientific non-sense which has nothing to do with wave physics but only with an incorrect application of it. Ignoring that if you correctly calculate the wave speed by using the correct Wave Equation you get the same wave speed no matter what direction you look.

The only reason why you think the speed of light should be variable is because you incorectly apply galilean relativity to classical wave physics, and make a non-sensical addition of the speed of the earth to the speed of the wave. Which is an incorrect aplication even of galilean relativity, because only for an observer in the sun’s frame the speeds would add. If the observer is on earth, and the light source is on earth, then the observer will be like the passenger on a moving train who throws a ball in oposite directions. He will NOT measure the speed of the ball to vary in different directions due to the motion of the train, because he is at rest with the train (or in the train’s rest frame). Only a stationary observer, who is not in the train’s rest frame, will measure different speeds of the ball in diffrenet directions, which compose with the speed of the train. In the same way, an observer who is at rest with the earth will NOT be able to measure a different speed of the ball (or ‘photon’) in different directions. So these ‘geniuses’ like Einstein could not even get basic galilean relativity right, yet alone basic wave physics.

https://www.quora.com/Why-did-Einstein-postulate-that-the-speed-of-light-is-independent-to-the-motion-of-the-source-if-that-is-EXACTLY-what-classical-wave-physics-says-The-speed-of-sound-is-also-independent-to-the-motion-of-the-source/answer/NovaPrism-1?__filter__=all&__nsrc__=notif_page&__sncid__=76449460073&__snid3__=101198042954